辅导案例-BIOL1020

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12/06/2020 Preview Test: BIOL1020 Semester One Final Examination 2020 &...
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Preview Test: BIOL1020 Semester One Final Examination 2020
Test Information
Description
Instructions
Timed Test This test has a time limit of 2 hours and 30 minutes.This test will save and submit
automatically when the time expires.
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continue to run if you leave the test.
BIOL1020 nal examination is weighted at 50% of you total mark for the course.
Answer ALL questions in the Blackboard test in the “Final Exam” folder on the course
Blackboard site (located below the Assessment folder).
Part A – MCQs 30 marks;
Part B – short answer 70 marks
At the end of the exam there will be a free text box eld. Please use this to specify any
assumptions you have made in completing the exam and which questions those
assumptions relate to. You may also include queries you may have made with respect
to a particular question, should you have been able to ‘raise your hand’ in an
examination room.
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Agree
Disagree
QUESTION 1
As a UQ student:
I acknowledge that academic integrity is a core value of The University of
Queensland community.
I will be courageous in upholding the University’s values at all times, even
when studying is dicult and no one else can see my actions. I will not
give in to persuasive cheating messages or pursue unauthorised help, but
rather seek help from trusted support sources/services. I acknowledge
that I am responsible for the consequences of my choices.
As a student in this community I promise to complete all my assessment
tasks, including exams online, with academic integrity in mind, to be fair
to my peers, show respect for my lecturers/tutors, and uphold the
reputation of the University.
I am committed to sustaining an environment of honest and mutual trust,
in which I can represent my own knowledge, skills and capabilities. I will
strive for academic excellence through the authenticity of my study
practices and assessment responses. Then I can be proud of my
achievements and know I have completed all the requirements of my
degree with integrity.
0 points   Save Answer
Yes
No
QUESTION 2
Please download the Codon Table from the link below at the start of
your exam.
BIOL1020 - Codon Table.pdf 
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QUESTION 3
A polysaccharide containing β(1→ 4) linkages is
amylopectin
cellulose
amylose
starch
glycogen
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 4
Which of the following features of phospholipids are correct?
Phospholipids are found in triacylglycerols
Phospholipids are a component of steroids
Phospholipids have hydrophobic head groups
Phospholipids have hydrophilic tails
Phospholipids are amphipathic
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 5
What are the main bonding forces responsible for the secondary
structure of proteins?
Hydrogen bonding
Disulde linkages
Salt bonds
Van der Waal’s forces
Hydrophobic bonding
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QUESTION 6
The two strands of a DNA double helix are antiparallel. This means
that:
the two strands are mirror images
only one of the two strands can be used as a template for
replication, since DNA polymerase only works in one direction
one strand runs in the 5' → 3' direction and the other runs in
the 3' → 5' direction
they both run in the 3' → 5' direction
one strand is actually composed of RNA
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 7
What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand
during DNA replication?
DNA ligase unwinds the parental double helix.
DNA ligase catalyses the lengthening of telomeres.
DNA ligase stabilises the unwound parental DNA.
DNA ligase synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer.
DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments together.
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QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
In prokaryotic cells the DNA is dispersed randomly throughout
the cell
The main dierence between eukaryotes and prokaryotes is
the presence of a cell wall
Chloroplasts can be found in multicellular and single cell
organisms
All eukaryotic cells except plants have mitochondria
Eukaryotic cells have an impermeable membrane surrounding
the nucleus
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QUESTION 9
Which of the following accurately describes how an enzyme
functions?
Reduces the Gibbs free energy of the reactant
Allows for the exothermic reaction of materials that are usually
endothermic
Reduces the activation energy
Increases the Gibbs free energy of the products
Shifts the equilibrium for the reaction
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements BEST DESCRIBES how chemical
energy is released from ATP?
The  chemical energy resides within the electrostatic
repulsions between the three phosphate groups, and is
released when the phosphate group is removed
The chemical energy is stored in phosphoanhydride bonds,
and released when these bonds are broken
The chemical energy is stored in H2O, which is needed to
hydrolyse ATP to ADP + Pi
The chemical energy is stored within the three independent
phosphate groups, and released each time a phosphate group
is broken down
The chemical energy is stored in the adenosine headgroup,
and released when adenosine is separated from the three
phosphate groups
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QUESTION 11
Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs):
Reach their peak concentration during S phase
Are degraded at the end of each cell cycle checkpoint
Bind to Maturation-Promoting Factor (MPF) to become active
Are detected in the nucleus while being absent from the
cytosol
Phosphorylate mitosis proteins to pass cell cycle checkpoints
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 12
p53 serves as a tumour suppressor gene by:
Replicating DNA that has been mutated
Inhibiting the cell cycle in cells with damaged DNA
Inhibiting repair mechanisms of DNA mutations
Binding directly to DNA to prevent UV light exposure
Promoting transcription in cells that have not been exposed to
UV light
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QUESTION 13
The iron response element (IRE) regulates ferritin production by:
Binding to a transcription factor that regulates gene
expression
Acting as an iron-sensitive inducer of transcription
Directing the iron-sensitive regulation of translation
Converting a substrate to the ferritin product
Iron-mediated catalysis
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QUESTION 14
Which of these sentences most accurately describes
heterochromatin?
It consists mainly of DNA that is more densely packed and that
is in a transcriptionally repressed state
It consists mainly of DNA being in a transcriptionally repressed
state
It consists mainly of DNA being actively transcribed
It consists mainly of more densely packed DNA
It consists mainly of lightly packed DNA
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements about mutations occurring in
a protein coding sequence is NOT true?
An insertion can be a silent substitution
A nucleotide substitution can be an amino acid changing
substitution
An insertion can be an amino acid changing substitution
A nucleotide substitution can be a silent substitution
Both nucleotide substitutions and insertions can be
deleterious
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QUESTION 16
If the coding strand of DNA has the sequence 5’-CGAGACTTCTGA-
3’, what will the sequence of the transcribed RNA be?
5’-CGUGUCTTCTGU-3’
3’-GCUCUGAAGACU-5’
3’-GCTCTGAAGACT-5’
5’-CGAGACTTCTGA-3’
5’-CGAGACUUCUGA-3’
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QUESTION 17
Why do RNA viruses need to supply some of their own enzymes
for replication?
Viruses need the enzymes in order to metabolize host cell
products
Host cells degrade their own enzymes when viruses enter the
cell
Viruses lack the lipids they need to make envelopes
Host cells lack the polymerase the viruses need to replicate
their genomes
Viruses need the enzymes to enter the cell
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 18
Which of the following is NOT true about meiosis I?
Homologous chromosomes are pulled apart from one another
during anaphase I
At the beginning of anaphase I, the number of chromatids is
twice the 2n number of chromosomes
During metaphase I, chromosomes are aligned along the
metaphase plate
Meiosis I results in the creation of two genetically identical
daughter cells
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QUESTION 19
How is DNA arranged in a eukaryotic cell during the G1 phase of
interphase?
in condensed chromosomes
by microtubule length
in chromatin bers
in plasmids
in pairs of sister chromatids
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QUESTION 20
How do you tell whether two genes are linked based on the
phenotypic results of ospring from a dihybrid cross?
If the genes are linked, certain combinations of phenotypes
will not be observed as often among the ospring of a dihybrid
cross
If the genes are not linked, you cannot calculate ospring
ratios using Punnett squares
Linked genes will result in mutations being expressed only in
male ospring
If the two genes are on dierent chromosomes, all the
ospring will look like the parents
If the genes are linked, only one version of each trait is
inherited
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 21
What type of inheritance pattern is suggested when the
ospring of a dihybrid cross (such as BbCc × BbCc) have a 9:3:4
phenotypic ratio?
incomplete dominance
codominance
polygenic inheritance
pleiotropy
epistasis
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QUESTION 22
DNA fragments of 125, 2027, 3059, 4361 and 9416 base pairs are
loaded into an agarose gel. After running the gel at 120 V for 1
hour, which fragment will be closest to the positive electrode?
4361 bp
3059 bp
9416 bp
125 bp
2027 bp
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QUESTION 23
There are numerous conventions for allelic notations. Which of
the following notations indicates a genotype that does NOT
necessarily match the rest?
b+g+/bg
BG/bg
++/bg
BbGg
B_G/b_g
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 24
Remember that birds follow at ZW sex chromosome system
where females are ZW and males are ZZ. In pigeons, colour is a Z-
linked trait whereby Red is dominant over Blue, and Blue is
dominant over Brown. A Brown female is crossed to a Red male.
Which of the following is NOT a possible observation about their
ospring?
They are red and brown in a 1:1 ratio
They are red and blue in a 1:1 ratio
They are brown and blue in a 1:1 ratio
They are all red
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 25
Which of the following statements about marker selected
breeding is INCORRECT? Marker assisted breeding is being used
in agriculture to:
Identify the loci causing changes to the plant’s phenotype
Quickly select plants that have a trait or phenotype of interest
Avoid having to grow plants to maturity to select which
individuals to retain for further breeding
Increase harvest yields
Relies upon genomic technologies
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QUESTION 26
Which of the following statements about natural selection is
INCORRECT?
Alfred Russel Wallace identied natural selection as an
evolutionary phenomenon.
If there is variability in a trait among individuals, then natural
selection will act on that population.
Traits that have a selective advantage can change by
environmental context.
Natural selection depends on many individuals dying before
they reproduce.
Natural selection results in changes in allele frequencies.
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 27
A gene has two alleles, one dominant and one recessive. If the
frequency of the homozygote recessive phenotype is 0.04, can
you estimate the frequency of homozygous dominant phenotype
individuals in that same population (assuming HWE)?
Yes, 0.64
Yes, 0.80
No
Yes, 0.20
Yes, 0.32
1 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 28
A snail population shows equal frequency in two dierent
phenotypes related to the direction of the coils on its shell.
Assume that coil direction is controlled by the locus coil where cc
individuals have clockwise coils and CC and Cc individuals have
counter clockwise coils. If snails preferentially mate with snails
whose shells coil in the same way, then what will happen in this
population? (It is actually a fact that snails whose shells are
mirror images cannot easily copulate).
There would be disruptive selection
The snails would eventually go extinct due to strong selection
The population would not evolve because the phenotypes are
in equilibrium
The genotypes and phenotypes would maintain Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium
There would be stabilizing selection
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QUESTION 29
The human genome is contained in
One chromosome
A red blood cell
The mitochondria
One gamete
The microbiome
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QUESTION 30
The E. coli genome contains over 4000 genes of which half are
regarded as core genes found in all individuals. In considering
the E. coli pan genome, what number of genes could the species
actually have access to through conjugation and
transformation?
200,000 genes
200 genes
20,000 genes
2000 genes
10,000 genes
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QUESTION 31
The relationship between organism complexity and genome size
for eukaryotes can be described as
An exponential relationship
Inverse relationship
A linear relationship
There is no relationship
There is only a relationship for single cell eukaryotes
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QUESTION 32
Natural selection operates on the phenotypic diversity of a
population. Which of the following will not contribute to natural
selection?
Polymorphisms in regulatory elements
Polymorphism in non-coding DNA
Non-synonymous polymorphism
Polymorphism in coding sequence
Synonymous polymorphisms
1 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 33
What would the comparative ease of digestion be of a
polysaccharide composed purely of α(1→ 4) bonds compared
with a polysaccharide composed of α(1→ 4) bonds and α(1→ 6)
bonds? Explain your answer.
4 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 34
A. Antarctic sh
B. Desert Iguana
C. Human being
D. Polar bear
E. Thermophilic bacterium
The cell membrane is a lipid bilayer that must remain uid in
order to function. With this in mind, which of the following
organisms would you predict to have the highest percentage of
unsaturated fatty acids in their membrane? Explain your
answer.
3 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 35
Describe THREE (3) similarities between mitochondria and
chloroplasts.
3 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 36
What is the endosymbiont hypothesis? As part of your
explanation, describe the evidence that supports this
hypothesis.
4 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 37
The values for ΔG have been determined for many dierent
metabolic reactions. What information do these values provide
about the rates of the reactions? What other information do ΔG
values provide?
3 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 38
Cellular respiration has a ΔG of -686 kcal/mol, breaking glucose
down through 24 enzymatic reactions. What are the benets of
breaking down glucose over so many individual steps?
4 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 39
What happens to mitochondria when a cell divides?
3 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 40
A. You have two auxotrophic mutant strains of N. crassa that will
not grow on minimal medium but will grow ne if arginine is
added to the medium. Is it more likely that these genes encode
enzymes involved in the synthesis of arginine or the
catabolism of arginine? (1 mark)
B. Suppose one mutant (named gene X) will also grow on minimal
medium supplemented with citrulline, whereas the other
mutant (named gene Y) will also grow on minimal medium
supplemented with either citrulline or ornithine. (Remember,
they also grow on medium supplemented with arginine). Using
this information, write out the pathway for the synthesis of
arginine including both the small molecules (arginine, ornithine
and citrulline) and the enzymatic functions encoded by the X
and Y  genes. (5 marks)
The mould, Neurospora crassa, is an autotroph. It synthesizes all
the molecules it needs, including amino acids, such as arginine.
6 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 41
A. Which of the following are proteins: (1 mark)
a. enhancer
b. transcription factor
c. RNA pol II
d. intron
e. mediator complex
f. TATA box
B.   Which two items in the list above play the primary role in the
developmental and environmental regulation of eukaryotic
genes. (2 marks)
Thinking about gene regulation in eukaryotes:
3 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 42
A. Give the nucleotide sequence of the anticodon that would
recognize the underlined codon in the mRNA (making sure to
label anticodon’s 5’ and 3’ ends. (2 marks)
B. Indicate the amino acid with which the tRNA carrying this
anticodon is charged. (1 mark)
Using the genetic code table and the schematic sequence of an
mRNA molecule below: 
                                     mRNA:       5’    NNNNNNNNN UGG
NNNNNNNNNNNN   3’
3 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 43
A. Describe the structure of an operon. (2 marks)
B. Indicate why this structure is useful in the context of bacterial
gene regulation. (2 marks)
Thinking about bacterial gene regulation:
4 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 44
Describe three ways that the primary RNA transcript of a human
gene may be modied prior to its translation.
3 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 45
During metaphase I, the tetrads of each homologous
chromosome pair are aligned at the metaphase plate. Explain
how the processes that happen in metaphase I and anaphase I
will inuence genetic variation in the resulting gametes?
4 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 46
In the fruit y Drosophila melanogaster, wild type wings are long
and are a dominant trait, whereas short (vestigial) wings are a
recessive trait. You are given a male y with long wings. How
would you determine the genotype of this y using a traditional
crossing experiment? Include in your answer the possible results
and what they mean.
4 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 47
The Turner syndrome (monosomy of the sex chromosome pair) is
a genetic disease caused by aneuploidy of the sex chromosome
in humans. Patients with the 45,X karyotype (also written as
45,XO to denote that one sex chromosome is missing) are
female. Describe the two scenarios leading to patients with
Turner syndrome. Would either of these scenarios need to be
specically and only happening in one of the parents (and in
which, if so)?
4 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 48
A. How many ies have the       + +/b vg      genotype? (1 mark)
B. What is the cM distance between black body and vestigial wing
loci? (2 marks)
Morgan and his students decide to repeat their famous mapping
study in Drosophila focusing on the loci black body and vestigial
wings in a dihybrid cross framework. Remember that wild type
ies have grey bodies and normal wings. In the F2 generation,
they observe the following number of ies based on phenotypes:
Grey body, normal wings: 945
Black body, vestigial wings: 869
Grey body, vestigial wings: 193
Black body, normal wings: 207
3 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 49
In a hypothetical population, there are no new mutations and all
individuals have the same tness. Is evolution happening in this
hypothetical population? Justify your response.
2 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 50
Life on the Earth appeared approximately 4 billion years ago and
life remained unicellular through most of this time. What
changes in the genome correlated with the expansion of
organism complexity and the appearance of multicellular life.
3 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 51
Describe how experience, notes and observations, and reading
contributed to Darwin developing his theory of natural
selection?
3 points   Save Answer
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QUESTION 52
A.  If you dilute 500 µL of a 0.4 M solution of MgCl2 with water to
make up a 800 µL solution, what would be the concentration of
MgCl2 in the nal solution (explain your calculations in words).
(2 marks)
B. If you added 9.42 mg of MgCl2 (MW 94.2 g) to the 800 µL
solution you made in (A), what would its new concentration be?
(explain your calculations in words) (2 marks)
4 points   Save Answer
QUESTION 53
If you felt that during this exam you had make an assumption
regarding a particular questions. please use this space to specify
those assumptions, and which questions those assumptions
relate to. You may also include queries you may have made with
respect to a particular question, should you have been able to
‘raise your hand’ in an examination room.
0 points   Save Answer

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